Ian Reynir wrote:But obviously high correlation is strongly indicative of causation. Everyone with 'x' also has 'y'; the chances are 'y' is the cause; or at least a contributory factor.
What "high" correlation are you talking about? Ref. [1] (highly cited - 65) shows no evidence of correlation for a highly speculated genetic mechanism. Ref. [2] shows possible correlation, but certainly not "high", between another polymorphism and bipolar disorder. Please define "high" correlation and please back up your statement with a reference. Thanks 
[1] T. Kanazawa, S. J. Glatt, B. Kia-Keating, H. Yoneda, and M. T. Tsuang. ?Meta-analysis reveals no association of the Val66Met polymorphism of brain-derived neurotrophic factor with either schizophrenia or bipolar disorder,? Psychiatric Genetics, vol 17, no. 3, pp. 165-170, 2007.
[2] C. Sears, D. Markie, R. Olds, and A. Fitches, ?Evidence of associations between bipolar disorder and the brain-derived neurotropic factor (BDNF) gene,? Bipolar Disorders, vol. 13, no. 7-8, pp. 630-637, 2011.
Source: http://www.psychforums.com/anti-psych/topic101131-10.html
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